I'm told that to code/bill for an E/M visit, there has to be medical necessity plus the problem is "treated." Our facility, which is heavy on Medicare patients, at times will code a "no charge" for a visit. I struggle at times because I'm unsure what constitutes "treatment" or whether it was necessary for the patient to actually come in. (I've tried researching but I can't seem to find any solid information.)
For example:
Pt comes in for followup of DM. HPI: Pt has no complaints. No exam done (or provider just notes vital signs stable). A/P: DM. Continue as before. Medication refilled (no change in med or dosage). Was this visit "medically necessary"? Was anything really "treated"? Do I code E/M 99211 or 99212, or "no charge" visit? (We have a certain code we use for "no charge" or "not billable").
Or pt returns for lab results. (No HPI, just reason for visit is given. Sometimes the provider will do an exam, but the auditor tells me the exam is not indicated so cannot count.) The lab confirms hyperlipidemia still exists (not a new problem) and provider refills same med, same dose. No counseling done, just told to continue as before. Is anything "treated" when nothing changes? Is this a billablevisit? (But why would the appointment even be made or the provider see the patient if it was not "medically necessary"?)
I'm so confused at times...I hope this question makes sense! (Newbie here, 5 months on the job.)
For example:
Pt comes in for followup of DM. HPI: Pt has no complaints. No exam done (or provider just notes vital signs stable). A/P: DM. Continue as before. Medication refilled (no change in med or dosage). Was this visit "medically necessary"? Was anything really "treated"? Do I code E/M 99211 or 99212, or "no charge" visit? (We have a certain code we use for "no charge" or "not billable").
Or pt returns for lab results. (No HPI, just reason for visit is given. Sometimes the provider will do an exam, but the auditor tells me the exam is not indicated so cannot count.) The lab confirms hyperlipidemia still exists (not a new problem) and provider refills same med, same dose. No counseling done, just told to continue as before. Is anything "treated" when nothing changes? Is this a billablevisit? (But why would the appointment even be made or the provider see the patient if it was not "medically necessary"?)
I'm so confused at times...I hope this question makes sense! (Newbie here, 5 months on the job.)