deskridge
New
I'm having trouble understanding why we would code Z15.01 for BRCA and not HER2 (which is is due to a mutation of the HER2 protein). I have presented this to my auditing team, which has been unable to confirm the use of Z15.01 for HER2 with either official AAPC guidance or AHA coding clinic guidance. However, I still believe Z15.01 should be used in this instance, as certain medications are used for HER2 positive patients and the definition of susceptibility seems to be met by BRCA and HER2 mutations.
HER-2 positive means there is "Amplification or overexpression of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) oncogene."
Meaning the cancer cells, "have a gene mutation that makes an excess of the HER2 protein." This makes the patient more susceptible to aggressive neoplastic growth.
Is this not enough similar verbiage as BRCA 1 and 2 gene mutation to justify Z15.01?
Additionally, 3M Computer Assisting Coding will suggest Z15.01 for "HER-2 Positive" documentation.
1. UpToDate:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/h...Title=1~150&usage_type=default&display_rank=1
2. Mayo Clinic:
https://www.mayoclinic.org/breast-cancer/expert-answers/faq-20058066
HER-2 positive means there is "Amplification or overexpression of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) oncogene."
Meaning the cancer cells, "have a gene mutation that makes an excess of the HER2 protein." This makes the patient more susceptible to aggressive neoplastic growth.
Is this not enough similar verbiage as BRCA 1 and 2 gene mutation to justify Z15.01?
Additionally, 3M Computer Assisting Coding will suggest Z15.01 for "HER-2 Positive" documentation.
1. UpToDate:
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/h...Title=1~150&usage_type=default&display_rank=1
2. Mayo Clinic:
https://www.mayoclinic.org/breast-cancer/expert-answers/faq-20058066