I do physician coding & billing for a small rural hospital in New York State, and the following was brought to my attention. That if the provider or nurse is calling a Rx for a patient to use the E/M 99211 and the diagnosis code v68.1.
Does anybody have any idea if this is the correct way of doing this, or has anybody tried this and it did it work? We would like to know if this is even correct way to handle this.
Does anybody have any idea if this is the correct way of doing this, or has anybody tried this and it did it work? We would like to know if this is even correct way to handle this.