Colliemom
Expert
One of our physicians counseled a patient's mother regarding the patient's care. (17 year old) She wants to check and see if this is billable:
I had an appointment with a 17 YO girl but her mother was the only one to come to the appointment. I did spend at least 30min in discussion with the patient's mother, but of course could not examine the actual patient. what do I do with this from a billing perspective? Can I bill at all given that the patient was not even present for the discussion?
I had one source tell me:
"You can bill the mother directly using the counseling code without patient present. It is not covered by insurance."
CPT states, under Time guidelines, Face-to-face time is defined as only that time that the physician spends face-to-face with the patient and/or family. So does the "and/or" mean we can still bill for the time spent counseling the mother about the daughter's care? Does the fact that the daughter was not present effect this?
I had an appointment with a 17 YO girl but her mother was the only one to come to the appointment. I did spend at least 30min in discussion with the patient's mother, but of course could not examine the actual patient. what do I do with this from a billing perspective? Can I bill at all given that the patient was not even present for the discussion?
I had one source tell me:
"You can bill the mother directly using the counseling code without patient present. It is not covered by insurance."
CPT states, under Time guidelines, Face-to-face time is defined as only that time that the physician spends face-to-face with the patient and/or family. So does the "and/or" mean we can still bill for the time spent counseling the mother about the daughter's care? Does the fact that the daughter was not present effect this?