lmmom64
New
I'm not certified yet, and started the coding course late last year, so just got really going on studying the ICD-10. In the instructions for neoplasm with associated pathological fracture, it says to code for the neoplasm first, followed by M84.5 for pathological fracture. But the example is exactly the opposite. It codes the fracture in neoplastic disease first, then codes for the fracture. The "General Code Set" book does this in a few places-- explains the sequencing one way, and gives an example that is just the opposite. This particular example is in the book on page 43. I finished the course, so I don't know where else to answer this question.